Festival of Winds
Emmy and Gaby
Sunday, June 13, 2004
Something that will make no sense to most people
Performing a fourier transform on a non repetitive signal gives a frequency reponse with values at (possibly) all frequencies. Thus, frequencies range from 0 to infinity. What I'm wondering is, are the times between pulses at the limit as frequency goes to infinity equal to the limit as time goes to zero. In my head it makes sense that this should be so, and the math seems to make sense in that frequency is measured in cycles per second (s^-1 as cycles really are unitless) and time is in seconds (s), such that as the number of cycles per second reaches infinity, it should take infinitely long for a single second to pass, and thus time per cycle would be effectively 0. And despite matching units, is it possible that one moves 'quicker' than the other, in the same fashion as some series grow quick enough to go to a true infinity while others do not. And I feel like im missing something by not having the phase play a role, although maybe its not necessary as im not worried about magnitude and direction, simply the time element of it. In addition, it gives rise to the question as to what happens in the transition between and 2 infinitely small bits, and how is a signal truly continuous if it could be broken up at those times, although I guess thats what happens everytime you work with infinities. At least its a good thought exercise for my signal analysis class, even if it doesn't get me anywhere. Yea, so this really didn't need to be written here, but just an insight into a mind apporaching finals.
Better your mind than mine. I don't mind sharing that I have not a clue what you wrote about. But you already knew that. Glad you do.....and that you are always thinking. Good luck with finals. Thinking of you............MomPost a Comment